Science chief clears up Oxford-AstraZeneca confusion

I understood the difference in efficacy was related to the likelihood of infection and that the Astra virus is nowhere near enough comparable to the others so far… I was not aware the efficacy had any bearing on transmission and so I dont understand how Astrea can be as effective as the other vaccines. Perhaps this needs clarification because that is not publicly stated by anyone?I think its really important that we dont get into a confusing tiot for tat on the basis of wanting to reassure everyone they need to take the lower efficacy vaccine.